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Customizable NAPLEX Exam Mode & Free PDF Products to Help you Pass NAPLEX: North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination Exam Certainly

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NABP NAPLEX Certification Exam is a critical examination that is mandatory for individuals who desire to become licensed pharmacists in the United States and Canada. NAPLEX exam is computer-based and is designed to evaluate the competency and knowledge of pharmacy graduates in various areas of pharmacy practice. Candidates are advised to prepare extensively for the exam to increase their chances of passing and obtaining a license to practice pharmacy.

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The NAPLEX Exam plays a crucial role in ensuring that only qualified individuals are licensed to practice pharmacy. Passing the NAPLEX exam is a prerequisite for licensure in most states and provinces, and failure to pass the exam can significantly delay or even prevent individuals from obtaining their license. Therefore, it is important for aspiring pharmacists to prepare thoroughly for the exam and to take advantage of available study resources.

NABP North American Pharmacist Licensure Examination Sample Questions (Q44-Q49):

NEW QUESTION # 44
Select the class of Anti-diabetic medication that works in the specified organ to prevent hyperglycemia. Select all that applies. Pancreases (A)

A. Biguanide
B. DPP4 Inhibitors
C. Thiazolidinediones
D. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists
E. Sulfonylureas
F. Alpha- Glucosidase Inhibitors
G. SGLT2 inhibitors

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Sulfonylureas, (C) DPP4 Inhibitors, (D) Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists Sulfonylureas work in beta cells in the pancreas that are still functioning to enhance insulin secretion. Alpha-Glucosidase Inhibitors stop -glucosidase enzymes in the small intestine and delay digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides which lowers the levels of glucose after meals. DPP4 blocks the degradation ofGLP-1, GIP, and a variety of other peptides, including brain natriuretic peptide. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists work in various organs of the body. Glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonists enhance glucose homeostasis through: (i) stimulation of insulin secretion; (ii) inhibition of glucagon secretion; (iii) direct and indirect suppression of endogenous glucose production; (iv) suppression of appetite; (v) enhanced insulin sensitivity secondary to weight loss; (vi) delayed gastric emptying, resulting in decreased postprandial hyperglycaemia.Thiazolidinediones are the only true insulin-sensitising agents, exerting their effects in skeletaland cardiac muscle, liver,and adipose tissue. It ameliorates insulin resistance, decreases visceral fat.Biguanides work in liver, muscle, adipose tissue via activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK) reduce hepatic glucose production. SGLT2 inhibitors work in the kidneys to inhibit sodium-glucose transport proteins to reabsorb glucose into the blood from muscle cells; overall this helps to improve insulin release from the beta cells of the pancreas.

NEW QUESTION # 45
Injectable Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim comes as 400mg/80mg/5ml. Physician requests you to dose a Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim intravenously for PCP. You know the dose is 15mg/kg/day (based on TMP component) divided q6h.
How many milliliters of Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim of 400mg/80mg/5ml would you need for single dose? Patient weighs 80kg.

A. 50 mL
B. 75 mL
C. 15 mL
D. 16.5 mL
E. 18.75 mL

Answer: E

Explanation:
Explanation
80kg person = 15mg/kg/day = 1200mg/day 80mg /5ml = 1200mg/X X= 75mL/day / 4 doses = 18.75 mL per dose

NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following would you use for aspiration pneumonia with an intention to cover anaerobes?

A. Ampicillin-sulbactam
B. Cefepime
C. Cefazolin
D. Piperacillin-Tazobactam
E. Levofloxacin

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cefepime, levofloxacin, cefazolin does not provide good coverage of anaerobes. Ampicillin-sulbactam and piperacillin-tazobactam provide anaerobic coverage.

NEW QUESTION # 47
A 20-year-old student came to the emergency department with primary complaints of palpitations, low-grade fever, and anxiety for 2 months. She reports that she is irritable and suffers severe mood swings that is interfering with her sleep and relationships (she admits to crying spells and frequent fights with friends and family). She has also lost 12 pounds in the past 2 months with no apparent alteration in her diet or physical activity (though she is happy with her weight loss). She denies any past medical problems, though her friends have always been worried that she eats too little.
Her temperature is 38.0 C (100.4 F), blood pressure is 148/62 mm Hg, pulse is 122/min and regular, and respiratory rate is 28/min. Examination reveals a bruit heard over the anterior neck, fine tremor of the hands, and warm, moist skin. Her eyes and eyelids do not move together during finger following test (with steady head). Laboratory work is sent, including a thyroid panel, but will not be available until tomorrow morning.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management at this time?

A. Diltiazem therapy
B. Referral to a surgeon
C. Methimazole therapy
D. Iodine therapy
E. Propranolol therapy

Answer: E

Explanation:
Explanation
This patient had hyperthyroidism, though the exact cause of her condition is not currently clear. The immediate treatment should focus on controlling the patient's symptoms for which a non-specific beta-blocker is seemingly an ideal choice. Propranolol therapy can be initiated without any adverse effects while the patient undergoes further workup of her condition. As the treatment for hyperthyroidism varies depending upon the cause of the condition, more definitive therapy should be avoided. Diltiazem (choice A) helps control heart rate but does not have the same antiadrenegenic properties as beta-blockers/ The initial treatment for symptomatic hyperthyroidism is propranolol. Iodine (choice B) can be used in high doses to inhibit thyroid production of T3 and T4. Until it's clear that this patient does not have an exogenous source of thyroid hormone (and until it is clear she is not pregnant), this agent should not be considered. Propylthiouracil (PTU) and Methimazole (choice C) inhibit the organification of iodine to tyrosine residues. If this patient has Graves diseases, this would be an appropriate treatment. Until a diagnosis is made, however, initial therapy should consist of a beta- blocker. Surgical treatment (choice E) of hyperthyroidism is often a reasonable treatment for patients who cannot tolerate medical therapy of radioactive iodine ablation.

NEW QUESTION # 48
In the US Nurses' Health Study (NHS) cohort study, where they looked at association of regular aspirin use (two 325 mg tablets/week) and colorectal cancer in 82,911 women found (RR, 0.77; 95% CI, 0.67-0.88) over
20 years of follow-up.
In an another analysis of the NHS, regular aspirin use, investigator also found (hazard ratio [HR]=0.72, 95% CI 0.56-0.92), what does this say about the mortality from colorectal cancer? How can this data best be interpreted?

A. Those who takes aspirin 2 times/week have 23% lower risk of colorectal cancer
B. None of the above is correct
C. Those who takes aspirin 2 times/week have 0.77% lower risk of colorectal cancer
D. Those who takes aspirin 2 times/week have 28% lower risk of colorectal cancer
E. Those who takes aspirin 2 times/week have 23% reduction in death from colorectal cancer

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Relative risk can be stated as 0.77 times as likely or 0.77 times the risk, but it could also be illustrated as a relative risk reduction and stated as a 23% risk reduction or 23% lower risk by taking the medication.

NEW QUESTION # 49
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